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Question 1

2 / 2 pts

In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

the patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT).

heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.

the erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.

erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of

destruction of erythrocytes.

neurologic involvement.

increased blood viscosity.

a decreased erythrocyte count.

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.





Question 4

2 / 2 pts

Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

8 to 12 months.

the rest of one’s life.

until the iron level is normal.

6 to 8 weeks.

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

In some anemias, the erythrocytes are present in various sizes, which is referred to as





Question 6

2 / 2 pts

Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

renal failure.

heart failure.

brain hypoxia.

liver hypoxia.

Question 7

0 / 2 pts

Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease–related lymphadenopathy are a result of

inflammation and ischemia.

obstruction and pressure.

ischemia and pressure.

pressure and obstruction.

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

An IgG-mediated autoimmune disorder

Liver failure

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with antibiotic therapy

Administration of warfarin (Coumadin)

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

IgG immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.

hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body’s needs.

cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.

IgE-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC?

Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a); IL-1, IL-6, and IL-8; and platelet-activatingfactor (PAF)

Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF); IL-3, IL-5, and IL-9, and IFN-?

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF); IL-2, IL-4, and IL-10; and IFN-?

Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF); IL-7, IL-11, and IL-14; and PAF

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

G6PD and sickle cell disease are

diagnosed equally in men and women.

inherited autosomal recessive disorders.

inherited X-linked recessive disorders.

disorders initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis.

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

has the mildest form of the disease with normal hemoglobin and hemoglobin F, which prevents sickling.

has a mild form of sickle cell disease that causes sickling during fever and infection, but not during acidosis or hypoxia, whereas the child with sickle cells disease develops sickling during each of these conditions.

has a milder form of the disease that is characterized by vaso-occlusive crises and is believed to result from higher hemoglobin values and viscosity.

inherited normal hemoglobin A from one parent and Hb S from the other parent, whereas the child with sickle cell disease has Hb S from both parents.

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is

type AB blood and the fetus has type B.

Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative.

Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.

type A blood and the fetus has type O.

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

Icterus gravis neonatorum



Icterus neonatorum

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

30 to 50; 80

60 to 80; 120

120 to 130; 150

90 to 110; 140

Question 16

0 / 2 pts

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against





Question 17

2 / 2 pts

Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?





Question 18

0 / 2 pts

The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by



high alcohol consumption.

diabetes mellitus.

Question 19

0 / 2 pts

What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?

They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.

They produce an increased amount of antithrombotic cytokines.

They develop a hypersensitivity to homocysteine and lipids.

They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

Increases preload and decreases afterload

Increases preload and increases afterload

Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Decreases preload and increases afterload

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

Congestive heart failure (CHF)

Cor pulmonale

Cerebral hypertension

Pulmonary hypertension

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Between the 12th and 14th weeks of gestation

Between the eighth and 10th weeks of gestation

By the 28th day of gestation

Between the fourth and seventh weeks of gestation

Question 23

2 / 2 pts

Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

Pulmonic stenosis

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

Aortic stenosis

Coarctation of the aorta

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

Coarctation of the aorta and pulmonary stenosis

Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus

Atrial septal defect and dextrocardia

Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.

right atrium; left atrium

right atrium; right ventricle

right ventricle; left ventricle

left atrium; left ventricle


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